(153) An irrational bizarre perspective on Shakespeare, how could this happen?

                   Robert Logan was not even willing  to reflect the 

                                            Marlowe/Shakespeare Thesis?    

                                                       A grotesque mental supression?      

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Robert Logan &" Shakespeare's Marlowe"

→Robert Logan,   Professor of English at the University of Hartford, USA wrote a book →"Shakespeare's Marlowe" on Marlowe's influence on Shakespeare's artistry (2007).The  cover claims that Logan makes plain how
 "Shakespeare incorporated into his own work the dramaturgical  and literary devices that resulted in Marlowe's artistic and commercial success, and how the mechanics of Marlowe's artistry led him [Shakespeare] to absorb and develop 3 powerful influences of Marlowe"

a) his remarkable dexterity

b) his imaginative flexibilty in reconfiguring Standard notions of dramatic Genres

c) his astute use of ambivalence and ambiguity

Shakspere and Marlowe, (born two months apart in 1564), never met. Marlowe, through an early artistic development phase (1578-1593), established himself as a precocious poet and theatrical genius (having written famous plays such as Tamburlaine, Doctor Faustus, Edward II) and a superstar of London theatre. His instant ‘death’, following a stabbing above the right eye, rolled seamlessly and within weeks into a new biography of the hitherto unknown writer, Shakespeare, who arrived 1593 with his successful opus.1 (Venus and Adonis) at a peak of literary mastery. Marlowe and Shakspere did not overlap in their creative activity for a single day. Their ignorance of each other is not even theoretically conceivable.

How could it happen that Robert Logan developed such an irrational  bizarre perspective on Shakespeare and that he obviously was not willing  to test the long proposed hypothesis o

of the  Marlowe  Shakespeare authorship theory ( at least as a working hypothesis) ?