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Shakespeare experts explain the ->Shakespeare Apocrypha as a group of plays that have sometimes been attributed to William Shakespeare, but whose attribution is questionable for various reasons and that the issue of Shakespeare’s Apocrypha (s.->Blog 182) is separate from the debate on Shakespearean authorship,
But is that really true? Do the Apocrypha have nothing to do with the Shakespeare Authorship problem??
Shakespeare experts seem to never have asked
Why no other English writer as a single author has been credited with an apocryphal body of work other than William Shakespeare? Why not Christopher Marlowe?
Why „The first part of the nature of woman. Fitly described in a Florentine Historie ( 1596) ", composed by C.M. and „The second part of the historie, called the nature of a woman .Contayning the end of the strife of Perseus and Theseus:“ compiled by C.M. 1596 are not likely
Christopher Marlowe's Apocrypha ?
What is the fundamental cause why literary history has brought us such a unique bizarre jumble with Shakespeare's Apocrypha?
