(350) Did Shakespeare expert Shapiro omitt Marlowe deliberately ?.

What the barbarous Scythian has to do with King Lear?

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King Lear Q 2 First Folio 1623 (Act I Scene1)

Comparing King Lear Q1/Q2 (1608/1619) with the First Folio (FF1623) serious questions arise.- Unfortunately in his books „Contested Will: Who Wrote Shakespeare?“(2011) and in  „The Year of Lear, Shakespeare in 1606 (2015)“  James  Shapiro did not deal with such essential problems like: 1).Who corrected the lines in King Lear,  from „mistresse of Heccat“ ( Q2 1619)    to    „miseries of Heccat“ (FF 1623) or „shall be“ to „shall to my bosome be“ (s.Example Faksimile.)      2.) Who was interested in (and responsible for) many of such crucial text changes between 1619 and 1623? 3.) Why King Lear (and his author)  in Q1/Q2/FF does express that "the barbarous Scythian" [Tamburlaine alias Marlowe] shall be as well neighbour‘d, pittied and releeved as his Daughter [Cordelia] 4.)Why in 1623 the passage of „The barbarous Scythian“  was clarified  by „shall to my bosome be as well neighbor’d, pittied and releev’d as my (some-time) daughter [Cordelia]                                                       ------------------ "King Lear" is a gloomy tragedy with a sense of deep general pessismism,  likely written in 1605. Consider that both, Marlowe's mother and legal  father "John Marlowe" died in  1605. Robert Ayres and others assume that Marlowe was a bastard.- his biological father Roger Manwood?) ( s. also previous  Blog 349) _____________ What may be  the reason that Shapiro omitted  deliberately Marlowe in his "Contested Will"?. - His ignorance forced him to ignore  such  great allusions to Marlowe  in King Lear illustrated here . Without  -->a plausible theory you will not get any sensible interpretation!