‘Co-Authorship
or the nature of C O L L A B O R A T I O N
 |
| Antistratfordian Prof. Bill Leahy favorizes the Co-Authorship-Theory |
For over two centuries scholars have discussed the possibility that Shakespeare worked with Co-authors on several plays, because certain plays showed significant signs of a putative collaboration with other writers.
Shakespere experts such as Brian Vickers believe that Shakespeare wrote
"Titus Andronicus" together with George Peele,
"Timon of Athens" with Thomas Middleton,
"Pericles" with George Wilkins, and
"Henry VIII" and "The Two Noble Kinsmen" with John Fletcher. --
Also other plays such as "Sir Thomas More"(Primary Author A.Munday) or "The Spanisch Tragedy"(Thomas Kyd) contain additions indicating a collaboration with Shakespeare. What type and nature of collaboration was this between the dramatists?
Was it an interactive collaboration or an ex-post-facto revision?
The plays that have been suggested as being co-authored are largely at the beginning and end of the canon and are viewed as apprentice pieces (early plays) and unfinished works (late plays).
Shakespere experts such as Brian Vickers believe that Shakespeare wrote
"Titus Andronicus" together with George Peele,
"Timon of Athens" with Thomas Middleton,
"Pericles" with George Wilkins, and
"Henry VIII" and "The Two Noble Kinsmen" with John Fletcher. --
Also other plays such as "Sir Thomas More"(Primary Author A.Munday) or "The Spanisch Tragedy"(Thomas Kyd) contain additions indicating a collaboration with Shakespeare. What type and nature of collaboration was this between the dramatists?
Was it an interactive collaboration or an ex-post-facto revision?
The plays that have been suggested as being co-authored are largely at the beginning and end of the canon and are viewed as apprentice pieces (early plays) and unfinished works (late plays).
Has anyone ever thought about the ways how such a collaboration with the outstanding extraordinary Shakespeare could have taken place and why there does not exist a single independent historical source for personal connections between one of those alleged collaborators and Shakespeare?
Isn't the inverse idea and theory more likely and logical, that Shakespeare's co-authorship did not result from a collaboration with different authors but from his "own" singular unique authorship, being forced to write and invent under different pennames or pseudonyms throughout his life, as proposed and developed in the book
Isn't the inverse idea and theory more likely and logical, that Shakespeare's co-authorship did not result from a collaboration with different authors but from his "own" singular unique authorship, being forced to write and invent under different pennames or pseudonyms throughout his life, as proposed and developed in the book
Multiple Co-authorship versus Multiple Pseudonymity
"The true Shakespeare: Christopher Marlowe.
(engl. Summary of the book)
