What a dishonesty?
Why deliberately obscuring 2 different personalities with an identical spelling & without a question mark??
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Stanley Wells, renowned Shakespeare expert and former Head of the →"Shakespeare Birthplace Trust" published Febr.4th 2014 an e-book entitled " Why Shakespeare was Shakespeare!"
It seems rather dishonest,[s.Video below) that Wells deliberately obscures the problem by falsifying(align) the Spelling of the name of the Stratfordman.
There exist no "familiar" records (like babtism, wedding, births, deaths, will, signatures) wheresoever, showing the Stratford mans name written as "S h a k e" instead of "Shak".
If Wells would have been a honest man he would have put the question:
Why Mr. Shakspeare [from Stratford] was the author Shakespeare [of the "Sonnets" or of "Romeo and Juliet?]" or simplified
It seems rather dishonest,[s.Video below) that Wells deliberately obscures the problem by falsifying(align) the Spelling of the name of the Stratfordman.
There exist no "familiar" records (like babtism, wedding, births, deaths, will, signatures) wheresoever, showing the Stratford mans name written as "S h a k e" instead of "Shak".
By claiming with the book title phrase that the two names are the same, and spelling them the same, Wells deliberately misleads the reader from the beginning into thinking that the Stratford man of course could only have been the author.
If Wells would have been a honest man he would have put the question:
Why Mr. Shakspeare [from Stratford] was the author Shakespeare [of the "Sonnets" or of "Romeo and Juliet?]" or simplified
Why Shakspere was Shakespeare ?
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What may be the reason that Ros Barber in her online Project "Shakespeare The Evidence" follows the footsteps of Stanley Wells : Why did she started her deserving project by initially obscuring it [asking : "Did Shakespeare write Shakespeare"] instead of clarifying it? Ok! I admit: it sounds more sexy!
Why not : e.g. "Did William the businessman from Stratford write "Romeo & Juliet" and "Hamlet"?
What may be the reason that Ros Barber in her online Project "Shakespeare The Evidence" follows the footsteps of Stanley Wells : Why did she started her deserving project by initially obscuring it [asking : "Did Shakespeare write Shakespeare"] instead of clarifying it? Ok! I admit: it sounds more sexy!
Why not : e.g. "Did William the businessman from Stratford write "Romeo & Juliet" and "Hamlet"?
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